We have an agreement which specifies that if there were any family proceedings then they should be in a particular country. Will England also consider this as not legally binding?
But the financial outcome abroad would have been different due to the marital agreement. Will England just ignore it altogether?
Our marital agreement was entered into in a country which has applicable law and we have a clause in which we specify that we would want the laws of a particular country to be applied. As England only ever applies its own laws, how would this clause be treated?
We are an international family presently in England. We come from countries which habitually have marital agreements. Would you recommend that we should enter into one?
I have a marital agreement specifying a EU country should deal matters of maintenance and needs. How does this work?
I entered into a pre marriage or other marital contract in another country. Will an English court uphold it?
I am intending to enter into a marital agreement abroad. What do the English courts prefer to see to give it substantive weight on any later divorce settlement?